Mike picked 7.0 apples, Nancy ate 3.0 apples, and Keith picked 6.0 apples and 4.0 pears, at the farm. How many apples were left? Answer:

The oldest dynasty still ruling in which country ?
The oldest dynasty still ruling in which country ?
Answer : 3 Japan Explanation : Answer: C) Japan Explanation: The longest-surviving dynasty in the world is the Imperial House of Japan.

Math Question If you have gone 4.8 miles in 24 minutes, what was your average speed in miles per hour? A. 5.0 B. 10.0 C. 12.0 D. 19.2 E. 50.0 The answer is C. 12.0. See below on how to solve the probelm. Congratulations to today’s winner Nina Fang.

Me and My Doctor: How Healthy Is Your County?
The 2015 County Health Rankings are in, and for the second year in a row, Presidio, Collin, and Williamson counties are Texas’ top three for overall health of their residents, while Limestone, Polk, and San Augustine counties bring up the rear.
Research published by the University of Wisconsin Population Health Institute and the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation examines the health of nearly every county in each state including Texas. The interactive report looks at health outcomes such as length and quality of life, and factors that affect health. Some of these factors include the number of uninsured residents, smoking and obesity rates, education, unemployment, and the environment.
Counties along the Texas-Mexico border, West Texas counties, and several counties in the Panhandle scored low in the Clinical Care category. This is due mainly to the higher rate of uninsured residents, which is a significant barrier to accessing needed health care.
Counties with large suburban populations scored high for overall health factors, likely because of easier access to physicians and health care providers, clinics, hospitals, exercise opportunities, and healthy food options.
Counties subjected to high counts of daily fine particulate matter in the air are concentrated in West Texas, the northern part of the Panhandle, and near the Oklahoma-Arkansas border. Fine particulate matter includes toxic organic compounds and heavy metal particulates that result from forest and brush fires, automobile exhaust, and smelting.
Discover your county’s data and compare it with other Texas counties.

The More You Have, The Less You See. What is it?
The More You Have, The Less You See. What is it?
Answer : 2 Darkness Explanation : Answer: B) Darkness Explanation: The More You Have the Darkness, The Less You See i.e, visible less.

These are the best and most fun math riddles we can find. All of these tricky riddles are based on real math concepts and can be solved with purely math and logic.
Question: There are 6 sisters. Each sister has 1 brother. How many brothers are in the sisters' family?
Answer: 1 brother. If there was 6 brothers, each sister would have 6 brothers.

Tommy Hilfiger, the famous American fashion designer. He started the clothing and lifestyle brand “Tommy Hilfiger Corporation” in 1985. He started with selling menswear line and later also started women’s clothing items, perfumes, etc. His company was a public limited company in 1992. But, in 2006, he sold his brand to Apax Partners for $1.6 billion. But, he remained in touch with the company in the form of principal designer for “Tommy Hilfiger Corporation”. His company was re-sold to Phillips-Van Heusen in 2010 for $3 billion.
Owns several other real estate properties including an 8-bedroom beachfront mansion at Palm Beach on the Caribbean Island of Mustique that he put on the market for sale in 2017.
Tommy graduated from Elmira Free Academy High School in 1970.
He was a below average student in school who failed his sophomore year (10th Grade) and had to repeat it. It was diagnosed much later that Tommy was dyslexic.
Since his parents wanted him to pursue a college education, he studied at the Bush Campus in Elmira affiliated to the Great Southern Tier Board of Cooperative Educational Services (GST BOCES) for a brief period.
Siblings – He was the second born of 9 children.
Maggie Rizer – Post-divorce, the Daily News published a picture of Tommy with his fingers tucked underneath the waistband of model Maggie’s jeans. Columnist George Rush pointed that their body language was undeniably intimate. However, Tommy himself was rather amused by the speculation and denied dating the model who worked closely with him on his brand’s advertising campaign.
Annabelle Bond – The designer confirmed that he dated British socialite Annabelle Bond for a brief period. She is the daughter of famous British financier and banker Sir John Bond.
Elizabeth Somerby – Tommy had another casual relationship with a paralegal from Stamford, Connecticut that fizzled out after some time.
Dee Ocleppo Hilfiger formerly known as Deniz Caroline Erbuğ (2005–Present) – Owner of the luxury, multipurpose handbags created in her name, Dee is a former model, former commodities broker, and ex-wife of retired Italian tennis player Gianni Ocleppo with whom she has two sons named Alex Occleppo (b. 1995, diagnosed with Autism) and tennis player Julian Ocleppo (b. August 1997). Dee and Gianni got divorced in 2003. Tommy and Dee were introduced to each other by a Yoga teacher while they were on a vacation at the high-end beach destination Cinquante-Cinq in St Tropez. Tommy invited Dee to a party at his yacht but Dee declined claiming she did not have a babysitter, so he invited her sons along with her. From there, initiated a close friendship between the couple for a year who bonded over the shared challenges of raising a child with Autism. The couple got engaged in February 2008 and threw a lavish engagement party at Neue Galerie, the Lauder family’s museum in Manhattan. The gathering was attended by the likes of Gayle King, Russell Simmons, Anna Wintour and Harvey Weinstein. After battling rumors and speculation about their break-up in August 2008, the couple overcame their differences to get married in an ultra-private closed ceremony at Hilfiger’s Connecticut estate in December 2008, a few days before Christmas. Their son Sebastian was born as a result of unplanned pregnancy in 2009. He was also diagnosed with Autism.
His father was of Dutch, German and possibly Swiss descent.
His mother was Irish but also had Scottish relatives.
His hair has now turned gray.
Formerly appeared in advertisements of Tommy Hilfiger and contributed to the worldwide fame of his brand by associating with A-list celebrities.
Snoop Dogg wore Tommy Hilfiger’s striped Rugby shirt in an episode of Saturday Night Live (March 1994) that led to record-breaking sales.
R&B icon Aaliyah was designated as a company spokesperson (1997).
Official sponsor of Sheryl Crow’s If It Makes You Happy tour (1997).
Endorsed a perfume named True Star (2004) with Beyoncé Knowles as the face of the product.
He is a non-religious person now but was raised, Catholic Christian.
Tommy’s father was a Protestant who converted to Catholicism to marry his mother. As a family, they visited the church every Sunday.
Creating the clothing brand Tommy Hilfiger formerly known as Tommy Hilfiger Corporation backed by Indian Textile Magnate Mohan Murjani in 1986.
In 2006, Tommy sold his company to a British private equity firm called Apax Partners for $1.6 Billion who further sold it to Philips-Van Heusen (now known as PVH Corp) in 2010 for $3 Billion.
Tommy continues to serve his brand as the Principal Designer of the clothing company.
Cameo as himself in Ben Stiller and Owen Wilson starrer Zoolander (2001).
1 episode appearance as himself in the MTV show House of Style (Fall Edition) (1995).
Details about his diet and exercise regime are not available.
He started working at the age of 9, first as a newspaper boy and then started mowing lawns. Then, he bought his own clothes as well as helped his brothers with money.
Initially, Tommy wanted to become an NFL player, but his football coach advised that the sport wasn’t right for him because he merely weighed 120 lbs in freshman year (9th Grade) as opposed to near 200 lbs of body weight of other players.
Due to his undiagnosed dyslexia, Tommy started observing the shoes and clothes of his teachers as a distraction from his inability to read the board or his textbooks. He often overheard his 5 sisters discuss fashion and developed a keen eye for latest trends in his teens.
To finance a vacation away from home, Tommy took up a sales job at a hippie clothing store. Upon his return home, he alarmed his parents by coming back sporting rock star like long hair, sandals, and bell bottoms. This gave Tommy his first business idea when he realized his hometown was lacking in fashion.
He purchased 10 pairs of bell bottoms from the nearest city Ithaca to sell them at a profit in his high school. They were sold out within a day.
Next, he purchased 600 pairs of jeans from New York City to sell them at a profit in his hometown. They were all gone within a week.
After saving $150, Tommy invested the money to open his own retail store called People’s Place in collaboration with two other friends which became an instant hit among the young adult crowd.
At 16, Tommy worked at a gas station and he loved his uniform that had a huge logo of an automobile on it. Many years later, it inspired the designer’s love for large logos and bright graphics in his clothing line.
Tommy’s father was extremely critical of him and never offered any source of validation while Tommy was growing up. Years later, he realized with the help of a therapist that his father was unknowingly mean to all his children named after relatives from his wife’s side while he was nice to all the children named after relatives from his family.
His father apologized to Tommy for his lack of emotional support right before he approached his death in 1989.
Since Tommy was still in senior year when he became a co-owner of a store, he had to wait till school’s closing to open the store at 3 pm.
By the end of his senior year (12th Grade), Tommy had an annual salary of $60,000.
By mid-seventies, Tommy co-owned 7-10 stores in various parts of New York and had a six-figure income.
Bruce Springsteen was Tommy’s first celebrity customer. He sold him a motorcycle and a denim jacket.
Despite the initial success, Tommy forgot to pay attention to the financial health of his business and got so busy splurging money by escorting dates to London, Paris, and rock concerts in privately chartered planes that his company went bankrupt after 7 years in business (1977).
Not wanting to get broke again, Tommy took a few commerce classes and forced himself to learn the basics of running a profitable business.
In 1979, Tommy formed a design team under the brand ‘Tommy Hill’ and acquired a client called Jordache Jeans. He gave himself a crash course in fashion design by visiting factories in India and observing how clothes got stitched and altered or corrected his design sketches accordingly.
In 1981, he attempted to design women’s clothing under the labels 20th Century Survival, Click-Point and Tat-Too which were not commercially successful.
Though the Murjani Group gave a platform to Tommy’s lifestyle brand, it was not until the company was acquired by Hong Kong-based Textile tycoon Silas Chou in 1989 that the company saw massive expansion to go public in 1992.
A persistent rumor perpetuated against Tommy for many years that he created clothes exclusively for white people that got him thrown out of Oprah Winfrey’s show. Oprah had to invite Tommy to her show to put an end to that fabricated story.
In 2005, Tommy hosted and sponsored a reality TV competition called The Cut, where 16 contestants fought for a chance to work for Tommy Hilfiger and create their own line under his label.
Although the designer contributes to several charitable causes, he is personally involved with Autism Speaks and serves as a member on the board of the charity since 2012.
His memoir titled American Dreamer co-written with writer Peter Knobler was released on November 1, 2016, which made it to the New York Times Best Sellers list in December 2016.
Tommy’s signature style is to recreate conventional and classic designs with a touch of playful edge.
To find out more about Tommy Hilfiger’s current collection sold in 90+ countries, visit the company’s official website @ Tommy.com.

Every living being grows up within a particular set of environmental influences. This is so even from before birth. In the womb, the egg, the seed and so on, the conditions for life and growth vary for each individual and species. After millions of years of evolution, humans are no doubt subject to the same principles, and this extends beyond our physical natures to the experienced product of our brains… our consciousness and intelligence. Even so, each person develops uniquely according to circumstances, which understanding of any person must therefore always take into account. Because of the ingrained traditions and sheer inertia of primitive superstitions and pre-scientific thinking where one could understand nothing about all but relatively very few natural causes, one believed that the human differed from all natural beings in being endowed with a God-created spirit or soul. This is called ‘creationism’, which is disproved as thoroughly as any idea can be though the massive evidence and explanatory power of evolutionary evidence. We were not born in the lap of the gods, but in the crib of the earth.
Speaking figuratively, the “crib” from which every person begins to experience the world represents the entire yet specific influences which form his or her individuality. Even when the baby leaves the actual crib and walks into the world, the figurative crib of the home and its family (if any) continues its influence for a majority of youth until physical maturity is reached. Though the nurture which develops us physically can be determining for those whose lives become physically oriented – such as in bodily labour, sports, and other careers where bodily features are paramount – the most important life influences for the majority are of a mental nature. This includes the handed-down skills, knowledge, and beliefs imbibed in “the crib”, and these extend to education and personal adjustment to the society in which one finds oneself (often called ‘socialization’).
Each “crib” is obviously limited. The outlook of even the most brilliant child of the most well-informed and broadly-experienced parents is still limited when maturity is reached, compared to the outlook of the greatest men and women of history. Though age is not a guarantee of maturity of mind, it is a necessary condition of it. Despite that, age is not correlated with mental maturity. Intelligence as a potential, rather than an actuality, may be measured to some extent – if not in all respects, of course. Actual intelligence, however, is quite another quality to any IQ measurement, however sophisticated, because it embraces all aspects of human life and understanding. Understanding relies on experience, breadth and depth of experience, accuracy of information and scope of knowledge… little of which can be measured other than by limited sampling of a person’s awareness, memory and mental agility. In short, intelligent understanding of the whole of existence – as far as this is possible – is not attainable before a considerable level of experience – and thus also age – is reached, all other pre-conditions which limit scope of knowledge being present.
The individual’s personal, social and overall intellectual evolution is doubtless no straightforward or ‘linear’ development. Though knowledge can cumulate progressively (even when much information is necessarily forgotten or discarded) the underlying assumptions and conclusions which are inevitable in all understanding can change most radically throughout life. That is invariably more a sign of development than of changeability, more an indicator of learning through trial and error than simply a catalogue of mistakes. Those who pursue many different viewpoints, languages, theories, faiths in the course of a lifetime- and whose horizons are not bounded by one nation – are far more likely to reach a higher level of mental evolution and moral sophistication than those who remain strictly within a single profession, one language, one part of the world, within a single faith and so forth. It is not possible for those professional intellectuals who never plunge into life beyond their libraries, laboratories or universities to attain to the kind of evolution of the spirit open to others who do not. By ‘spirituality’ one should not understand any other worldliness such as in religious beliefs and practices, but the unfolding of the human spirit of investigation and enterprise in the world of the present. How fully this ‘unfolding’ can extend is dependent naturally on many circumstances and there are no limits in any direction of interest, making complete mastery of possible knowledge or understanding impossible to anyone.
Though the above views are not supported here by empirical evidence, the likelihood of their truth is probably quite evident to most mature persons who – to one or another extent – fit the requirements they describe.
What conditions make up the “crib”? Evolutionary science has already shown in amazing breadth of detail, considering the relative brevity of its existence since Darwin, how conditions right back to the emergence of life forms on earth have successively formed the basis for the succeeding steps. There are relatively few important gaps in the overall chain and none which any longer could challenge its overall validity. It is a leap in human intelligence compared with the total ignorance of this entire realm of scientific discovery only two hundred years ago and its denial by so-called ‘creationists’ (i.e. religious believers) since then. Other sciences received great impetus from evolutionary science, not least paleontology, anthropology, psychology, sociology and other human sciences in which the consequences of evolution have stimulated to both new basic assumptions and increased inter-disciplinary research. So much for the physical “crib” and natural selection regarding life apart from humans. The more intricate and wide-reaching questions of human evolution now relate to the nature of the human “crib” as sets of both a physical, social, cultural and intellectual conditioners and influences.
The evolution of human knowledge – as a product of human intelligence – is much illumined both by social anthropology and history. The history of cultures, especially those which have predominated in the impetus to civilised world order, is of great significance in evaluating knowledge, its roots, consequences, and not least its limitations and possibilities. Which forms of knowledge represent objective progress as determined by their consequences are contested on political, social and not least religious grounds. Certain advances in science and – to a lesser extent in social thought – are firmly established on a very wide basis and proven empirically through the efficacy of their consequences, whether or not these effects are desirable to all. Such advances represent a standard by which the historical progress of understanding in a culture, nation, population or other grouping of people can be estimated. There are no accurate overall measures of progress of understanding, though there are many reasonable measures of a wide variety of types of personal development of understanding and knowledge. Nonetheless, it is safe to say that sub-cultures where there is understanding and general acceptance of relativity and quantum physics, of evolutionary science and genetics are more advanced than those where this is not the case, or where these are contested on religious or similar grounds. The same applies, with lesser exactness and reduced reliability to many aspects of knowledge about ourselves as social and psychological beings.
The consciousness that prevails most in any social group or sub-culture – even sometimes in a whole population – can characterise it as belonging to a former era in human intellectual and social development as distinct from the prevailing consciousness among those who have surpassed that level in general or as a significant number of the issues which concern a society. An image may help here, it is as if different individuals, – and often also groups of people – exist within a “time-space capsule” which can be roughly dated in terms of the history of human thought and action.
This entry was posted on September 21, 2009 at 9:29 pm	and is filed under Creationism, Environment, Evolution, Psychology, Uncategorized, Understanding. You can follow any responses to this entry through the RSS 2.0 feed. You can leave a response, or trackback from your own site.

>>>>> anyone knows, what has changed in recent 12 hours?
>> databases/ldb dependency depends on openldap (without sasl).
>> depends on either of them might require adding WANT_OPENLDAP_SASL too.
a package that needs ldap-sasl at the same time.
> yesterday, so I couldn't connect for half a day.
only need to access repo.freebsd.org.

India’s first multi-modal electric vehicle project has launched in which city ?
India’s first multi-modal electric vehicle project has launched in which city ?
Answer : 2 Nagpur Explanation : Answer: B) Nagpur Explanation: India’s first multi-modal electric vehicle project has been inaugurated by the Union Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Gadkari, along with Maharashtra Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis at the Nagpur Airport Complex to promote eco-friendly transport. With this, Nagpur became the first city in India to have electric mass mobility system with a fleet of 200 electric vehicles, including taxis, buses, e-rickshaw and autos.

This is completely awesome! Great work all around!!
..magnificent shot!!..the exposure...the mono..the comp...just sickness!!

Example: For Nora's birthday, her mom bought a cake. Nora's mom made 6 equal pieces of the cake and Nora ate 2 of the pieces. What fraction of the cake did Nora eat?
Answer: Nora ate 2 out of 6 pieces. Therefore, she ate 2/6 fraction of the cake.
Q 1: Sam brought 7 pencils to school in September. In June he had two left. What fraction of his pencils did he have left in June?
Q 2: Sam brought 7 pencils to school in September. In June he had two left. What fraction of his pencils did he use up during the school year?
Q 3: An apple is cut into four pieces. One piece has a worm so you throw it away. What fraction of the apple is left.
Q 4: Emily has 8 favorite books. Four of them are Harry Potter books. What fraction of them are Harry Potter books?
Q 5: Anna has 8 dolls. Three of them are Barbie dolls. What fraction of the dolls are Barbie dolls?
Q 6: There are six math problems on the board. Jamie gets 5 of them correct. What fraction of the problems did she get correct?

Turmeric is a spice that is commonly used in cooking. Research studies show that it has antibacterial properties that can help in treating skin conditions like acne.
Moreover, its antioxidant and anti-inflammatory benefits are ideally suited for treating skin conditions when it is applied directly on the skin.
Make a turmeric paste by mixing 1 tablespoon (15 grams) of turmeric powder with 1 to 2 teaspoon (5 to 10 mL) of water. Adjust the thickness of this paste by changing the proportion of the turmeric and water used.
For example, to make the paste thinner, add more water (little by little) until you reach a consistency that allows you to apply it to the skin easily.
Some people have reported good results with using milk instead of water to make this paste so this is another option to consider.
This paste can be applied to the entire face (for best results) and allowed to dry. Leave on for 30 minutes.
Wash off with a mild soap and warm water.
Because turmeric may stain clothing and towels, use a disposable face clothing (or set one aside just for this treatment process).
Instead of using turmeric paste as a face mask, you can leave it on your skin overnight.
Simply make a cream instead of a thick paste by adding more water (or milk).
Be aware that turmeric may stain your pillow case or bed sheets permanently. This is especially true if you roll around a lot while you sleep!
Because of turmeric's antibacterial and anti-inflammatory activities, some herbalists have suggest that taking turmeric supplements by mouth can help with the acne conditions.
The suggested dose is 500 mg up to four times daily.
Many people would like to have their acne condition cleared up as soon as possible. However, natural remedies do not work very fast. Actually, neither do prescription medications.
This is because it takes time for the skin cells to be completely replaced. The skin cells typically completely turnover (replace itself) in about 30 days.
So the fastest the acne condition could clear up would be in about a month. It is common to take up to 2 months to have acne on the face to completely disappear and to have the skin restored to normal complexion.
Give it a try and see if it will benefit your acne condition. It is low cost and easy to make and apply.

At Building Surveying Solutions we are able to provide a written record of the condition of a property by producing a detailed Schedule of Condition, which can be supplemented with a photographic record as required.
There is a requirement at times for Schedules of Condition to be taken of adjoining premises as a precursor to certain types of building work being undertaken which might cause damage to these neighbouring premises.
A Schedule produced for such situations is normally agreed with the neighbours appointed surveyor.
Upon completion of the works (or during, should any damage be recorded to the neighbouring properties), both the neighbours surveyor and the surveyor acting on behalf of the one executing the building works agree any difference in condition and generally negotiate a settlement or agree a schedule of repairs.
There is a requirement for Schedules of Condition to be taken of adjoining premises as a precursor to specific types of building work, excavations and the laying of foundations being undertaken as provided by the Part Wall etc Act 1996.
A Schedule of Condition which forms part of the Party Wall Award produced for such situations is agreed with the neighbours appointed surveyor. Upon completion of the works (or during, should any damage be recorded to the neighbouring properties), both the neighbours surveyor and the surveyor acting on behalf of the one executing the building works agree any difference in condition and generally negotiate a settlement or agree a schedule of repairs.
Schedules of Condition can be produced for the purposes of providing a record of the condition of premises, either residential or commercial which are to be leased. Providing the Schedule of Condition forms part of the lease agreement, it can provide protection for the prospective tenant at the end of the lease term, in that it will limit the landlord's ability to serve on the tenant a comprehensive Schedule of Dilapidations and Wants of Repair.
It is generally a requirement that landlords permission is obtained prior to the execution of any alterations to leased premises. It would be usual for the landlord to require that a Schedule of Condition be taken of any adjoining premises prior to the commencement of works and then checked upon completion and if necessary any repairs being undertaken at the tenant's expense. A Schedule will readily identify those areas which have suffered damage or those areas of existing damage which may have only come to the attention of the neighbour(s) during the progress of the works.

As his life comes to a close, he comes to the conclusion that there is a season for everything in our lives. He also alludes to the fact that our lives have a past, a future, and a present. We can't see how "today" fits into God's big picture for our lives.
But Solomon assures us that God has made everything beautiful in its time.
Most of us don't live in the present but rather spend our time pondering or regretting the past, and worrying about the future. If we can't change the past or determine the future, then what do we have left? We have today. And in "the now" we can minister, we can encourage, and we can act.
If you really want to see the beauty of God and what He can do, then be faithful to what He has called you to today.
Our prayer for you: We pray that you would remember the power of today and the moments you have been granted to make a difference in Christ's name. We pray that you would find encouragement and strength in your calling, and that you would act in a way that takes full advantage of the gift that today is.

Broome County Community MH Services is categorized as a Mental Health, but may provide additional health care support.
For detailed questions about the health care provider at Broome County Community MH Services, you may contact their Binghamton offices via phone.
Broome County Community MH Services will provide you with support in English.
The Fix would like you to submit real Broome County Community MH Services reviews, if you have had an experience with their program, or know someone who has. If you’ve gone to Broome County Community MH Services in Binghamton, New York you are welcome to share details about their treatment, recovery, detox, or other health care services.
Colorful language is fine (we get it, this is an all-too human industry), but please refrain from threats of harm, hate speech, and/or other displays of bigotry. Please don’t reveal personal information about Broome County Community MH Services or any of their staff members, employees, clientele, or patients.
If you are the business owner or an authorized representative of Broome County Community MH Services, you may contact us to resolve problematic or untrue information, but we ask that you not write, copy, paste, or otherwise contribute promotional material about your own place of business (or the place where you work).

The most common reason for an estate sale is the death of the property owner, and the consequent need to quickly liquidate the deceased’s property – often at a substantial discount.Well-maintained Bungalow in a kid friendly neighbourhood within walking distance to the high school and downtown. Main floor features spacious living room kitchen and dining area, 3 bedrooms and full bath. Present owners did an extension on the back which has the laundry area and over-sized foyer with patio doors to a sunny semiprivate back yard. Lower level is partially finished with a full bath,bedroom,den office,small kitchenette and 2 spacious storage rooms. Property is beautifully landscaped front and back, paved driveway to an wired storage shed. Property is a must see! Homeowners installed an Air Conditioning unit in the dinning nook, this is for cooling only.
Notes: Well-maintained Bungalow in a kid friendly neighbourhood within walking distance to the high school and downtown. Main floor features spacious living room kitchen and dining area, 3 bedrooms and full bath. Present owners did an extension on the back which has the laundry area and over-sized foyer with patio doors to a sunny semiprivate back yard. Lower level is partially finished with a full bath,bedroom,den office,small kitchenette and 2 spacious storage rooms. Property is beautifully landscaped front and back, paved driveway to an wired storage shed. Property is a must see! Homeowners installed an Air Conditioning unit in the dinning nook, this is for cooling only.

For anyone Daredevil vs. Hulk seems like a quick recipe for blind-lawyer pancakes. And while it pretty much is, this is also the issue where Ben Urich first deduced Matt Murdock's secret identity, but not before the mindless, rampaging Hulk figured it out first.
In these days Daredevil was just ramping up. Roger McKenzie's scripts were been knocked out of the ballpark by Marvel's latest 20-something rising-star; artist Frank Miller and inker Klaus Janson. Only having recently joined the title, Frank brought with him a pulp-noir style and level of detail unmatched at the time.
Kicking straight into round one, a plain-clothes Matt calms the monster he once defended in court, by asking for his trust in helping him find the source of his rage, Bruce Banner.
While I always felt Bruce and Matt should hang-out a bit more, their plan to get the Hulk calmly beyond New York City proves even nuclear scientists can have an epic fail, as Banner opts for the subway. Lost in the hustle, bustle and smoke, Bruce's anger kicks in, activating his infamous change and round two for Murdock, this time as Daredevil.
Attempting one last suicide gambit to reason with the beast, Matt throws his all into the battle and delivers the ultimate blow by explaining Hulk is actually Bruce Banner. Except it backfires. The Hulk's rage slips into overdrive and he slams ol' Hornhead for six.
Just look at that again. That's the detail and expression of Frank Miller at the start of his career. Wow. Just wow. I love the little pebble falling in that last frame to - backing up the penny has dropped for the Hulk.
How does the Jade Giant cope with the realisation of all he's done? Keep an eye out for Daredevil #163 'Blind Alley' to find out!
DD also took on the Sub-Mariner in a very early issue of his book (#7 or something), proving Matt is no pushover!
I'll say Rob - I love digging back into the reprinted Marvel books and seeing when the Sub Mariner would take on the heroes. He fought pretty much everybody.
I love the cover to that issue too. The first appearance of Matt's infamous red suit, Wally Wood just did an awesome job on both.
In fact I'll stick it up in the 'Classic Covers' sidebar this week so everybody else can check it out!
I hadn't picked up on the peeble falling - that's a great visual clue!
Yeah I love when the illustrators add those hidden kind of Easter Eggs Robert... and that's from a guy at the start of his career. No wonder people new he was going to be big.

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Contrasted with simple Shewhart charts in which you visually analyze process stability—seeing whether there are points beyond the control limits—visual analysis of a CUSUM chart is rather tiresome. It requires that you construct a so-called V-mask with arms pointing to the left and a central point, which should be placed on each point of the process as it is plotted.
Due to such inconvenience, most textbooks recommend an algorithmic (or table) method to analyze the process stability while working with CUSUM charts.4 But there’s a simple procedure for anyone to plot a moving V-mask on a CUSUM graph by using traditional Excel software.
Calculate the parameters of V-mask as it’s described in any guide. Again, using data from Advanced Topics in Statistical Process Control: H = 4,876 and K = 1,84,7 in which H is a critical distance of V-mask and K is its slope (Online Figure 2). Now, choose any cell in the column next to column E (for example, E15 in Online Figure 1) and construct two straight lines with the slope K starting at points deviated from the chosen point by H units.
In cell F15, enter the formula: =E15 - $L$30 ($L$30 contains the value of H). In cell G15, enter the formula: =E15 + $L$30. For cells F14 and G14, enter =E15 - $L$30 - $L$29 and =E15 + $L$30 + $L$29, respectively ($L$29 contains the value of K).
For cells F13 and G13, you have: =E15 - $L$30 – 2 * $L$29, =E15 + $L$30 + 2 * $L$29, and so on. As a result, you can obtain something like Figure 4. Here, crimson lines show the mask arms pointing to the left, and yellow lines for those pointing to the right (the values for these lines are shown in columns H and I of Online Figure 1).
To draw a V-mask, it is necessary to copy the set of cells that corresponds to your lines (in this example, cells F11:G15) and place it into a cell of interest. Doing this, you should take into account the length of the V-mask arm or how many cells you used for depicting the sloping lines.
If the regions of two successive drawings overlap, erase the previous one. Otherwise, several extra lines will appear and make the picture a bit ambiguous. A comparison with data in Advanced Topics in Statistical Process Control8 shows that Online Figure 3 leads to the same results as a traditional V-mask.
Apparently, Excel allows you to easily change the parameters of V-mask. Such a simple technique may be useful for quality practitioners, especially when you consider the pervasiveness of the Excel application.
Donald J. Wheeler, Advanced Topics in Statistical Process Control, SPC Press, 1995.
Douglas C. Montgomery, Statistical Quality Control, sixth edition, 2009.
William H. Woodall, "Controversies and Contradictions in Statistical Process Control," Journal of Quality Technology, 2000, Vol. 32, No. 4, pp. 341-350.
Montgomery, Statistical Quality Control, see reference 2.
Wheeler, Advanced Topics in Statistical Process Control, see reference 1, chapter 13, Table 13.1.
Wheeler, Advanced Topics in Statistical Process Control, see reference 1.
Ibid, chapter 13, Figures 13.3-13.5.
Vladimir Shper is an associate professor at the Moscow Institute of Steel and Alloys in Russia. He holds a doctorate in reliability from the All Russian Electrotechnical Institute in Moscow. Shper is a senior member of ASQ.

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Mike had 3.0 apples. Nancy ordered 7.0 apples. Keith picked 6.0 more apples. How many apples were left after Nancy collected her order? Answer:

41. Kathleen and Glenn decide that this is the year to begin getting serious about saving for their retirement by participating in their employers' 401k plans. As aresult, they each have $3000 of their salary set aside in their qualified plans.
0*0.20 = 800. Answer: $800. b. Joel is under 18 at the end of the year, so he is not eligible for the credit. Answer: $0.

Question: To dye a single Easter egg takes 7.5 minutes if you leave it in dye. How long would it take to dye 3 eggs?
Answer: 7.5 minutes. Do them all at once.

Dr. Johnson needs to buy the same number of needles and syringes. The syringes are sold in packages of 6 and the needles are sold in packages of 10. What’s the smallest number of packages of syringes, and the smallest number of packages of needles, that Dr. Johnson can buy to have a matching number of each?
Answer: 5 packages of syringes and 3 packages of needles.
Dr. Johnson needs to come up with the smallest number that is divisible by both 6 and 10.
Since 6=2×3 and 10=2×5, the smallest number that is divisible by 6 and 10 is 2x3x5=30.
Therefore, Dr. Johnson needs 30/6=5 packages of syringes, and 30/10=3 packages of needles.

A block of wood 3.0cm on each side has a mass of 27g. What is the density of this block? Answer: 1.0 #"g/cm"^3#.
The 3.0 × 3.0 × 3.0 comes from the formula for the volume of a rectangular solid.
You can read about how to calculate density here.
You have to know the mass and the volume to calculate the density.
You know that the mass is 27 g.
Now you have to calculate the volume.
You know that your sample is a block that is 3.0 cm on each side.
In each of your calculations, the number of decimals is controlled by the number of significant figures.
Every number you use in your calculations has 2 significant figures, so you can have only 2 significant figures in your answers.

A farmer keeps three types of animals on his farm: cows, pigs and horses. Can you guess how many of each animal he has based on the following information?
ANSWER: 3 cows, 2 pigs and 1 horse.
Replacing Pigs with 2 in equations 1 and 3 will give you the number of Horses and Cows.

BRITISH student taking Edexcel's GCSE Maths paper took to Twitter to vent their frustration over a problem involving how many sweets a girl called Hannah has.
There are 6 orange sweets and n sweets overall. So, if Hannah takes one, there is 6/n chance of getting an orange sweet. When she takes one, there is one less orange sweet and one less overall meaning that the probability is now (6-1)/(n-1)=5/n-1.
To find the probability of getting the orange sweet both times, multiply the two fractions: 6/n* 5/n-1 =30/n^2-n.
It shows the probability of taking two orange sweets (1/3) is: 1/3=30/n^2-n.
The denominators then need to be the same, so multiply 1/3 by 30 which would then make 30/90=30/n^2-n.
Discounting the 30 on both sides of the equation makes n^2-n=90. By moving 90 onto the other side of the equation, it will equal zero.
Answer to what is wrong with this picture?

The length of each side of an equilateral triangle is the product of 1.1547 x height. ( Note: 1.1547 is twice the reciprocal of the square root of 3.). Example: if the height of an equilateral triangle is 30 cm, the length of each side will be 34.641cm (30 x 1.1547cm).
The length of each side of an equilateral triangle is the product of 1.1547 x height. ( Note: 1.1547 is twice the reciprocal of the square root of 3.). Example: if the height of an equilateral triangle is 30 cm, the length of each side will be 34.641cm (30 x 1.1547cm).

A function f : A -> B is surjective or onto or a surjection if f A = B. I.e. f can return any value in B. This means that its image is its codomain.
Only surjections have right inverses, f' : B -> A where f (f' x) = x since if f were not a surjection there would be elements of B for which f' was not defined.

1) The share of A is 30%.
2) The percentage of A is 30%.
3) The proportion of A is 30%.
4) A accounts for 30%.
5) A makes up 30%.

1. How many steps will be required to complete the given input?
From Input to Step I. The word that comes first in alphabetical order goes to the first position. The smallest number goes to the second position. The rest of the line shifts rightward.
From Step I to Step II. The word that comes second in alphabetical order goes to the first position. The second smallest number goes to the second position. The rest of the line shifts rightward.
This goes on until in the last step all the words are arranged in reverse alphabetical order and the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right.
From Input to Step I. The word that comes first in alphabetical order goes to the first position. The smallest number goes to the second position. The rest of the line shifts rightward.
From Step I to Step II. The word that comes second in alphabetical order goes to the first position. The second smallest number goes to the second position. The rest of the line shifts rightward.
This goes on until in the last step all the words are arranged in reverse alphabetical order and the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right.
2. Which of the following is the third element from the left end of step VI?
3. Which of the following is step III of the given input?
4. What is the position of ‘nice’ from the left end in the final step?
5. Which element is third to the right of ‘family’ in Step V?
Direction (6-10). The given questions are followed by two statements I and II. You have to decide which of the following statements are required to answer the question?
Six persons -A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table. All are facing towards centre. Who among the following is sitting to the immediate right of F?
Statement I: D sits second to the right of A. Two persons sit between B and D. C sits second to the left of F.
Statement II: E sits second to the left of A. Two persons sit between C and E. F sits second to the left of B.
E sits to the immediate right of F.
E sits to the immediate right of F.
Direction (6-10). The given questions are followed by two statements I and II. You have to decide which of the following statements are required to answer the question?
Five persons A, B, C, D and E are living in a five floored building with top floor numbered as 5. They are also are of five different ages. Who among the following is living on bottom floor?
Statement I: A lives on an even number floor. Eldest among them lives on Odd number floor. One person lives between A and C. Person who lives on floor number 4 is youngest of them. E is elder than B but younger than D. A is elder than B but younger than D. B lives on top floor.
Statement II: E is elder than C but younger than A. D lives on odd number floor. Only one person lives between D and B. A lives below D but above E. Eldest of them lives on floor number 3. B is elder than C but younger than D.
E lives on bottom floor.
E lives on bottom floor.
Direction (6-10). The given questions are followed by two statements I and II. You have to decide which of the following statements are required to answer the question?
A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in a row having seven seats. All of them are facing north. Does D sit at one of the extreme end of the line?
Statement I: B sits third to the left of G. Two persons sit between C and E.
Direction (6-10). The given questions are followed by two statements I and II. You have to decide which of the following statements are required to answer the question?
Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F are having different weights. Who among them is the lightest?
Direction (6-10). The given questions are followed by two statements I and II. You have to decide which of the following statements are required to answer the question?
A, B, C, D, E, and F are six members of a family. How many females are there in the family?
Eight children M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. One day they played a cricket match and scored different runs viz— 11, 16, 19, 25, 34, 41, 46 and 50 but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the above it is numbered two and the topmost floor of the building is numbered eight.
The total runs which were scored by P and T is a multiple of 4. The difference between runs which was scored by Q and S is 6. The one who lives on 6th floor scored 25 runs. Only one child lives between R and the one who scored 25 runs. S lives below R on an even numbered floor. S does not score 25 runs. The one who scores 46 runs lives immediately above S. Only two children live between R and T. T lives below R. Only two children live between M and the one who scored 41 runs. M lives above S. The one who scored 41 runs lives above M. N scored 34 runs. The one who scored 11 runs lives immediately above the one who scored 16 runs. Only one child lives between O and Q.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
Eight children M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. One day they played a cricket match and scored different runs viz— 11, 16, 19, 25, 34, 41, 46 and 50 but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the above it is numbered two and the topmost floor of the building is numbered eight.
The total runs which were scored by P and T is a multiple of 4. The difference between runs which was scored by Q and S is 6. The one who lives on 6th floor scored 25 runs. Only one child lives between R and the one who scored 25 runs. S lives below R on an even numbered floor. S does not score 25 runs. The one who scores 46 runs lives immediately above S. Only two children live between R and T. T lives below R. Only two children live between M and the one who scored 41 runs. M lives above S. The one who scored 41 runs lives above M. N scored 34 runs. The one who scored 11 runs lives immediately above the one who scored 16 runs. Only one child lives between O and Q.
12. Who scored 11 runs?
The one who lives on the floor numbered-2.
The one who lives on the floor numbered-6.
The one who lives on the floor numbered-4.
The one who lives on the floor numbered-3.
Eight children M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. One day they played a cricket match and scored different runs viz— 11, 16, 19, 25, 34, 41, 46 and 50 but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the above it is numbered two and the topmost floor of the building is numbered eight.
The total runs which were scored by P and T is a multiple of 4. The difference between runs which was scored by Q and S is 6. The one who lives on 6th floor scored 25 runs. Only one child lives between R and the one who scored 25 runs. S lives below R on an even numbered floor. S does not score 25 runs. The one who scores 46 runs lives immediately above S. Only two children live between R and T. T lives below R. Only two children live between M and the one who scored 41 runs. M lives above S. The one who scored 41 runs lives above M. N scored 34 runs. The one who scored 11 runs lives immediately above the one who scored 16 runs. Only one child lives between O and Q.
13. Which of the following statements is/are not true?
The one who scored 16 runs lives immediately above P.
P did not score 46 runs.
S lives on third floor.
Eight children M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. One day they played a cricket match and scored different runs viz— 11, 16, 19, 25, 34, 41, 46 and 50 but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the above it is numbered two and the topmost floor of the building is numbered eight.
The total runs which were scored by P and T is a multiple of 4. The difference between runs which was scored by Q and S is 6. The one who lives on 6th floor scored 25 runs. Only one child lives between R and the one who scored 25 runs. S lives below R on an even numbered floor. S does not score 25 runs. The one who scores 46 runs lives immediately above S. Only two children live between R and T. T lives below R. Only two children live between M and the one who scored 41 runs. M lives above S. The one who scored 41 runs lives above M. N scored 34 runs. The one who scored 11 runs lives immediately above the one who scored 16 runs. Only one child lives between O and Q.
14. How many children live between M and the one who scored 46 runs?
Eight children M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. One day they played a cricket match and scored different runs viz— 11, 16, 19, 25, 34, 41, 46 and 50 but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the above it is numbered two and the topmost floor of the building is numbered eight.
The total runs which were scored by P and T is a multiple of 4. The difference between runs which was scored by Q and S is 6. The one who lives on 6th floor scored 25 runs. Only one child lives between R and the one who scored 25 runs. S lives below R on an even numbered floor. S does not score 25 runs. The one who scores 46 runs lives immediately above S. Only two children live between R and T. T lives below R. Only two children live between M and the one who scored 41 runs. M lives above S. The one who scored 41 runs lives above M. N scored 34 runs. The one who scored 11 runs lives immediately above the one who scored 16 runs. Only one child lives between O and Q.
15. Which of the following combinations is/are true?
Q – 25 – Floor numbered-6.
R – 16 – Floor numbered-2.
P – 19 – Floor numbered-3.
Ten friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V took IBPS Clerk Preliminary Exam which was scheduled from Monday to Sunday of the same week. In between there was one holiday on which exam was not scheduled. After the result each got different marks viz— 45, 49, 51, 53, 56, 57, 62, 63, 68 and 75. On each day (other than holiday) at least 1 friend had exam and at most 2 friends had exam.
M got 45 marks. M’s exam was scheduled on either Thursday or Friday. There was one day between M and P’s exam. P’s exam was after M’s. There was one day between P’s exam and the one who got 63 marks. The one who got 75 marks had exam on Saturday. N got 12 marks more than the one who had exam on the same day as N. Only one friend had exam on Tuesday. V’s exam was just before the one who got 49 marks. V’s exam was not on Saturday. There were two days between the exam of M and U also there were three days between the exam of N and V. U had exam alone. O’s exam was scheduled just after the day on which there was a holiday.
There was one day between the exam of O and the one who got 49 marks. O’s exam was before the one who got 49 marks. The one who had exam on Sunday got marks which is multiple of three. There is difference of five marks between the one of the friends who had exam on Sunday and the one who had exam on Tuesday. T got 51 marks. T and O’s exam was not on the same day. Q’s exam was scheduled just after R’s.
16. Which of the following statements is/are true?
O’s exam was scheduled after Thursday.
P and S’s exam was scheduled on the same day.
Ten friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V took IBPS Clerk Preliminary Exam which was scheduled from Monday to Sunday of the same week. In between there was one holiday on which exam was not scheduled. After the result each got different marks viz— 45, 49, 51, 53, 56, 57, 62, 63, 68 and 75. On each day (other than holiday) at least 1 friend had exam and at most 2 friends had exam.
M got 45 marks. M’s exam was scheduled on either Thursday or Friday. There was one day between M and P’s exam. P’s exam was after M’s. There was one day between P’s exam and the one who got 63 marks. The one who got 75 marks had exam on Saturday. N got 12 marks more than the one who had exam on the same day as N. Only one friend had exam on Tuesday. V’s exam was just before the one who got 49 marks. V’s exam was not on Saturday. There were two days between the exam of M and U also there were three days between the exam of N and V. U had exam alone. O’s exam was scheduled just after the day on which there was a holiday.
There was one day between the exam of O and the one who got 49 marks. O’s exam was before the one who got 49 marks. The one who had exam on Sunday got marks which is multiple of three. There is difference of five marks between the one of the friends who had exam on Sunday and the one who had exam on Tuesday. T got 51 marks. T and O’s exam was not on the same day. Q’s exam was scheduled just after R’s.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
Ten friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V took IBPS Clerk Preliminary Exam which was scheduled from Monday to Sunday of the same week. In between there was one holiday on which exam was not scheduled. After the result each got different marks viz— 45, 49, 51, 53, 56, 57, 62, 63, 68 and 75. On each day (other than holiday) at least 1 friend had exam and at most 2 friends had exam.
M got 45 marks. M’s exam was scheduled on either Thursday or Friday. There was one day between M and P’s exam. P’s exam was after M’s. There was one day between P’s exam and the one who got 63 marks. The one who got 75 marks had exam on Saturday. N got 12 marks more than the one who had exam on the same day as N. Only one friend had exam on Tuesday. V’s exam was just before the one who got 49 marks. V’s exam was not on Saturday. There were two days between the exam of M and U also there were three days between the exam of N and V. U had exam alone. O’s exam was scheduled just after the day on which there was a holiday.
There was one day between the exam of O and the one who got 49 marks. O’s exam was before the one who got 49 marks. The one who had exam on Sunday got marks which is multiple of three. There is difference of five marks between the one of the friends who had exam on Sunday and the one who had exam on Tuesday. T got 51 marks. T and O’s exam was not on the same day. Q’s exam was scheduled just after R’s.
18. Who got the highest marks?
Ten friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V took IBPS Clerk Preliminary Exam which was scheduled from Monday to Sunday of the same week. In between there was one holiday on which exam was not scheduled. After the result each got different marks viz— 45, 49, 51, 53, 56, 57, 62, 63, 68 and 75. On each day (other than holiday) at least 1 friend had exam and at most 2 friends had exam.
M got 45 marks. M’s exam was scheduled on either Thursday or Friday. There was one day between M and P’s exam. P’s exam was after M’s. There was one day between P’s exam and the one who got 63 marks. The one who got 75 marks had exam on Saturday. N got 12 marks more than the one who had exam on the same day as N. Only one friend had exam on Tuesday. V’s exam was just before the one who got 49 marks. V’s exam was not on Saturday. There were two days between the exam of M and U also there were three days between the exam of N and V. U had exam alone. O’s exam was scheduled just after the day on which there was a holiday.
There was one day between the exam of O and the one who got 49 marks. O’s exam was before the one who got 49 marks. The one who had exam on Sunday got marks which is multiple of three. There is difference of five marks between the one of the friends who had exam on Sunday and the one who had exam on Tuesday. T got 51 marks. T and O’s exam was not on the same day. Q’s exam was scheduled just after R’s.
19. On which of the following days was the holiday?
Ten friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V took IBPS Clerk Preliminary Exam which was scheduled from Monday to Sunday of the same week. In between there was one holiday on which exam was not scheduled. After the result each got different marks viz— 45, 49, 51, 53, 56, 57, 62, 63, 68 and 75. On each day (other than holiday) at least 1 friend had exam and at most 2 friends had exam.
M got 45 marks. M’s exam was scheduled on either Thursday or Friday. There was one day between M and P’s exam. P’s exam was after M’s. There was one day between P’s exam and the one who got 63 marks. The one who got 75 marks had exam on Saturday. N got 12 marks more than the one who had exam on the same day as N. Only one friend had exam on Tuesday. V’s exam was just before the one who got 49 marks. V’s exam was not on Saturday. There were two days between the exam of M and U also there were three days between the exam of N and V. U had exam alone. O’s exam was scheduled just after the day on which there was a holiday.
There was one day between the exam of O and the one who got 49 marks. O’s exam was before the one who got 49 marks. The one who had exam on Sunday got marks which is multiple of three. There is difference of five marks between the one of the friends who had exam on Sunday and the one who had exam on Tuesday. T got 51 marks. T and O’s exam was not on the same day. Q’s exam was scheduled just after R’s.
20. How many marks did U get?
Which element is third to the right of ‘family’ in Step V?
Direction (6-10). The given questions are followed by two statements I and II. You have to decide which of the following statements are required to answer the question?
6. Six persons -A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table. All are facing towards centre. Who among the following is sitting to the immediate right of F?
Statement I: D sits second to the right of A. Two persons sit between B and D. C sits second to the left of F.
Statement II: E sits second to the left of A. Two persons sit between C and E. F sits second to the left of B.
7. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are living in a five floored building with top floor numbered as 5. They are also are of five different ages. Who among the following is living on bottom floor?
Statement I: A lives on an even number floor. Eldest among them lives on Odd number floor. One person lives between A and C. Person who lives on floor number 4 is youngest of them. E is elder than B but younger than D. A is elder than B but younger than D. B lives on top floor.
Statement II: E is elder than C but younger than A. D lives on odd number floor. Only one person lives between D and B. A lives below D but above E. Eldest of them lives on floor number 3. B is elder than C but younger than D.
8. A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in a row having seven seats. All of them are facing north. Does D sit at one of the extreme end of the line?
Statement I: B sits third to the left of G. Two persons sit between C and E.
9. Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F are having different weights. Who among them is the lightest?
10. A, B, C, D, E, and F are six members of a family. How many females are there in the family?
Eight children M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. One day they played a cricket match and scored different runs viz— 11, 16, 19, 25, 34, 41, 46 and 50 but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the above it is numbered two and the topmost floor of the building is numbered eight.
The total runs which were scored by P and T is a multiple of 4. The difference between runs which was scored by Q and S is 6. The one who lives on 6th floor scored 25 runs. Only one child lives between R and the one who scored 25 runs. S lives below R on an even numbered floor. S does not score 25 runs. The one who scores 46 runs lives immediately above S. Only two children live between R and T. T lives below R. Only two children live between M and the one who scored 41 runs. M lives above S. The one who scored 41 runs lives above M. N scored 34 runs. The one who scored 11 runs lives immediately above the one who scored 16 runs. Only one child lives between O and Q.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
The one who lives on the floor numbered-2.
The one who lives on the floor numbered-6.
The one who lives on the floor numbered-4.
The one who lives on the floor numbered-3.
Which of the following statements is/are not true?
The one who scored 16 runs lives immediately above P.
P did not score 46 runs.
S lives on third floor.
How many children live between M and the one who scored 46 runs?
Which of the following combinations is/are true?
Q – 25 – Floor numbered-6.
R – 16 – Floor numbered-2.
P – 19 – Floor numbered-3.
Ten friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V took IBPS Clerk Preliminary Exam which was scheduled from Monday to Sunday of the same week. In between there was one holiday on which exam was not scheduled. After the result each got different marks viz— 45, 49, 51, 53, 56, 57, 62, 63, 68 and 75. On each day (other than holiday) at least 1 friend had exam and at most 2 friends had exam.
M got 45 marks. M’s exam was scheduled on either Thursday or Friday. There was one day between M and P’s exam. P’s exam was after M’s. There was one day between P’s exam and the one who got 63 marks. The one who got 75 marks had exam on Saturday. N got 12 marks more than the one who had exam on the same day as N. Only one friend had exam on Tuesday. V’s exam was just before the one who got 49 marks. V’s exam was not on Saturday. There were two days between the exam of M and U also there were three days between the exam of N and V. U had exam alone. O’s exam was scheduled just after the day on which there was a holiday.
There was one day between the exam of O and the one who got 49 marks. O’s exam was before the one who got 49 marks. The one who had exam on Sunday got marks which is multiple of three. There is difference of five marks between the one of the friends who had exam on Sunday and the one who had exam on Tuesday. T got 51 marks. T and O’s exam was not on the same day. Q’s exam was scheduled just after R’s.
O’s exam was scheduled after Thursday.
P and S’s exam was scheduled on the same day.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
Who got the highest marks?
On which of the following days was the holiday?
How many marks did U get?

Hank had 10 crayons. He used 4.
How many are left now ?

The decay KL→π0e+e- is searched for as a signal of direct ΔS=1 CP violation. We provide a thorough updating of the analysis of the three components of the decay: (1) direct CP violation, (2) CP violation through the mass matrix, and (3) CP-conserving (two photon) contributions. First the chiral calculation of the KS→π0e+e- rate, due to Ecker, Pich and, de Rafael, is updated to include recent results on the nonleptonic amplitude. Then we systematically explore the uncertainties in this method. These appear to be so large that they will obscure direct CP violation unless it is possible to measure the KS→π0e+e- rate. The CP-conserving amplitude remains somewhat uncertain, but present indications are such that there may be a sizable CP-violating asymmetry in the e+,e- energies from the interference of the CP-conserving and CP-violating amplitudes and this may potentially be useful in determining whether direct CP violation is present.
Donoghue, JF and GABBIANI, F, "REANALYSIS OF THE DECAY-K-L-]PI(0)E(+)E(-)" (1995). PHYSICAL REVIEW D. 137.

The match of SC Velbert vs TSV Meerbusch in Germany Oberliga Niederrhein is started at 2019-3-24 22:00. For this match, the initial Asian Handicap is SC Velbert0.0,+0.5; The initial Goals Odds is 3.0.
For the last 10 matches, SC Velbert got 3 win, 2 lost and 5 draw with 17 Goals For and 18 Goals Against. The average of Goals For is 1.7 per match and the average of Goals Against is 1.8 per match. The rate of Over Goals is 75%; The rate of Handicap Win is 40%; The rate of win is 30%; The average of corners is 5 per match and the rate of Over Corners is 50%.
For the last 15 matches, TSV Meerbusch got 4 win, 8 lost and 3 draw with 32 Goals For and 41 Goals Against. The average of Goals For is 2.1 per match and the average of Goals Against is 2.7 per match. The rate of Over Goals is 73%; The rate of Handicap Win is 30%; The rate of win is 27%; The average of corners is 5.1 per match and the rate of Over Corners is 100%.
Except the history stats of SC Velbert vs TSV Meerbusch, ScoreBing also offers predictions and lineups of SC Velbert vs TSV Meerbusch, that may help you predict or replay the match.

Have you got a great idea for making your transportation workplace safer or more efficient? Have you developed a new gadget or a way to do your job better? Submit your idea now to compete in VA LTAP’s Build a Better Mousetrap Competition.
We are looking for projects that you, your employees, or crew designed and built or modified. It can be anything from the development of tools, equipment modifications, and/or processes that increase safety, reduce cost, improve efficiency, and/or improve the quality of transportation.
Check out VA LTAP’s own Jim Zarling and his Build a Better Mousetrap video. Jim will inspire you to submit your own creative ideas and solutions!
Submit a photo (3 megapixels or more) or, better yet, a spotlight video to demonstrate your entry’s problem, development, and working solution. Videos should be no longer than 5 minutes.
The VA LTAP winner will be recognized in an upcoming newsletter and receive a prize.
The winning VA LTAP entry will be submitted into the regional mousetrap competition to compete with winning entries from Delaware, Maryland, Pennsylvania, and West Virginia.
The winning regional submission will go on to compete at the national mousetrap competition for national recognition and, of course, bragging rights! The national winner will be announced at the NLTAPA conference being held in New Orleans on July 23-26.
Click here for the VA LTAP entry form.

The 3rd Annual East Africa Cement, Concrete and Energy Summit was successfully conducted on August 1st and 2nd, 2018 at UN-ECA Conference Center in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia under the theme “Sustainability of cement and concrete investment in East Africa"
The i-Capital Africa Institute organized the Summit in collaboration with the Cement Technology Center of Adama Science and Technology University (CTC-ASTU) and Ethiopian Cement Producers Association (ECPA) and with a strategic partnerships from Chemical and Construction Input Industries Development Institute (CCIIDI) and Ethiopian Construction Projects Management Institute (ECPMI).
Gemechu Waktola (PhD), founder and CEO of The i-Capital Africa Institute during his welcoming speech noted that the annual summit provides a common platform for key players and stakeholders of the region's cement, concrete, and energy sectors in shaping the future of the region and ensuring the sustainable future of the industry is the collective task of the sector and other stockholders.
The official opening speech was provided by Engineer Ayisha Mohammed, Minister. Minister of Construction, who was a Guest of Honor at the summit, stated that the summit brought together actors who plays a great role in leading changing the sector in the country as well as in the region.
Around 335 participants form different area of the sector joined in the summit. Participants include academicians and researcher from various university, business leaders of the sectors, different policy makers, different personnel from governmental institution in the construction sector, and more.
The i-Capital Africa Institute creates a platform for knowledge sharing and critical voices, that facilitates continuous learning and improvement as part of addressing the challenges in the sectors through creating the platform for business leaders, experts, policy makers, technology suppliers and researchers.
The summit was successfully completed, we believe the ideas and suggestions raised in the discussions at the policy roundtable and panel discussion of the summit will contribute immensely in shaping the future of cement, concrete and energy sector success in East Africa. We thank all our co-organizers, Strategic Partners, Speakers, Panelists, Chairpersons, Delegates, Exhibitors, Sponsors, Financial supporters and all EA-CCES participants for the tremendous part you played in making this possible.

A careful read of State Representative Mary E. Flowers’ proposed Rent Control Act (a/k/a House Bill 2192) is an eye-opener. A highly similar version of this bill was circulated in 2018 by State Senator Mattie Hunter as Senate Bill 3512. Both Representative Flowers and Senator Hunter are Democrats representing areas predominantly located on the South Side of Chicago and in the South and Southwest suburbs. As of the writing of this article, hearings on the proposed bill are scheduled for Thursday, February 14. This is a developing story. The Newsletter will keep a close eye on how this bill fares. Updates in future Newsletters are a certainty.
Does it even need to be said? Building codes are boring. So, it should come as no surprise that the current effort to re-write them has gotten little attention.
As I See It: Two Proposed House Bills. Read, Sigh, and Take Action!
The State Legislature under Governor Pritzker is in session and, as expected, members of the General Assembly have introduced problematic and short-sighted bills regarding rent control.
I urge you to take the time and read these bills – or at least their synopsis.
Chicago is a proud city with an impressive history – it was the fastest growing American metropolis of the 19th Century. It rose from the ashes of the 1871 fire to become bigger and better than before. It is the birthplace of the skyscraper and deep-dish pizza!
The Rogers Park Builders Group lost one of its finest and most beloved members with the sudden and unexpected passing of Linda Liberatore in January. Linda was a newer member of the group, only joining RPBG in 2012, and only becoming a Director in 2017. But you would not have known it for the deep friendships she forged, and the active and important role she happily took on.
Rogers Park Builders Group brought in four new Directors at the end of 2018 representing a cross-section of the real estate industry and bringing with them new energy and ideas about what the organization is and can be.
Rogers Park Builders Group’s Administrator par excellence, Sheryl Rosenberg, is creating quite a buzz outside of her part-time job handling the RPBG’s behind the scenes work.
Verella Osborne, President, Legal Document Management, Inc.
Statutory and technology changes have created some new opportunities and some new risks for property owners. Here are a few ideas about how to improve your lease documents in the ever-changing world of property management.

Rocky Mountain Farmers Union Throws Support Behind DMEA | Delta-Montrose Electric Assn.
"We are humbled by the recent support we have received from RMFU. Their resolution gets right to the heart of our complaint against Tri-State: the well-being of the people who live and work in rural Colorado", said Jasen Bronec, DMEA CEO. Please read the full resolution below.
WHEREAS, Rocky Mountain Farmers Union (RMFU) has a vested interest in competitive, stable and low-cost electric rates, financially and operationally sound rural electric cooperatives and generation and transmission associations; and given the regional importance of these issues, our members have a vested interest in Tri-State Generation and Transmission Association’s (Tri-State) long-term success to provide energy to our members.
WHEREAS, RMFU member producers are working within a small profit margin - on average 7 percent of a producer’s expenses are energy costs. Producers deserve a competitive and fair price for energy and shouldn’t be at a disadvantage for being served by a rural electric cooperative.
WHEREAS, RMFU supports rural utility cooperatives and opposes their privatization. We regard the member-owned cooperative as an effective institution through which members can reduce costs of production, maintain a reliable source of inputs, and effectively market and process their products. We also believe it is the individual responsibility of each RMFU member to be a full participant and patron in the cooperative movement and build closer relationships between the farm organization and cooperatives.
WHEREAS, dramatic changes in technology and market conditions has driven the cost of renewable electric generation sources well below carbon-based resources, providing new, cost-saving opportunities for utilities across the region.
WHEREAS, renewable energy resources that build infrastructure, meets customer demands, and drives economic growth is much-needed in rural areas.
WHEREAS, RMFU is aware of a recent report from the Rocky Mountain Institute, which found that Tri-State has the potential to secure significant cost-savings for members by adjusting their current generation fuel mix to more cost-competitive sources.
WHEREAS, RMFU’s members are in the same region as Tri-State, and they are aware of Colorado and New Mexico joining the U.S. Climate Alliance with goals of cutting greenhouse gas emissions by 45 percent of 2005 levels. This goal and the recent announcement by Xcel Energy to deliver 80 percent carbon-free electricity to customers in the eight states it serves by 2030, which the company believes can be achieved affordably with renewable energy and other technologies currently available, and 100 percent carbon-free electricity by 2050.
WHEREAS, RMFU is aware of actions taken by several Tri-State member cooperatives, ranging from negotiations to buy out their long-term power requirement contracts, to seeking investment opportunities in their own service territories in order to proactively assess how to maximize local economic benefits and secure competitive, transparent and sustainable rates for rural communities.
WHEREAS, unless Tri-State makes better decisions, its member cooperatives are going to be left out of clean energy developments that are sweeping the rest of the states and bringing several community’s significant economic benefits. Tri-State should step back and review and re-tool its existing resource plan so it calls for investment in clean, affordable, reliable alternatives, especially efficiency programs, which are the single most cost-effective step power providers can take to satisfy growing demands.
1. RMFU requests Tri-State Generation and Transmission Association (Tri-State) work expeditiously and transparently to assess the competitiveness of their current generation portfolio in comparison to current market and new generation opportunities.
2. RMFU requests that as part of the 2019 Electric Resource Plan process, Tri-State facilitates substantive opportunities for stakeholder engagement to ensure a well-informed outcome that benefits Tri-State, member cooperatives and end-use customers.
3. RMFU requests Tri-State to consider a host of alternative electric service contract arrangements that allows members to promote, without penalty, renewable resources, with the aim of reaching the most economically beneficial and sustainable outcome for Tri-State, member cooperatives, and rate payers.
4. RMFU encourages Tri-State to create optional, partial requirements contracts for their member systems to allow the members to purchase more renewable power, encourage local renewable power projects, and drive their cost of wholesale power down.
5. RMFU supports Delta-Montrose Electric Association’s effort before the Colorado Public Utilities Commission to obtain a just, reasonable, and nondiscriminatory exit charge from Tri-State that does not negatively impact the other Tri-State members, and which lets Delta-Montrose pursue more cost-effective, local renewable generation.
RMFU stands ready and willing to partner in these efforts to ensure proactive reform diversification and modernization in this quickly changing industry, in order to maximize local economic benefits and sustainable electric service for our members and ultimately keep agriculture in business.

Richard Brown CBE FCILT has been appointed as a non-executive member of the Department for Transport Board by Transport Secretary, Patrick McLoughlin. Chief Executive of Eurostar from August 2002 to April 2010 and Chairman until June this year, he was previously Commercial Director and a main Board Director of National Express Group plc, where he set up its UK Trains Division. He was the 2008/9 President of the Chartered Institute of Logistics & Transport and is currently its Rail Sector Ambassador.

David Wells joined us to talk about his fascinating past life regression work, delving into his own personal past life experiences, along with other anecdotal accounts of people he has helped along the way, helping them also attain this somewhat rewarding state. We tapped into some of David’s other wide and ranging esoteric skills, discussing his work as a Qabalist, Astrologer and Psychic, useful tools in enabling us to reveal who we truly are.
David is well known for his work on Living T.V’s Most Haunted and writing Horoscopes for well known national newspapers. You don’t meet many people that are an authority on so many spiritual practices but still able to explain them so effortlessly, if you are thinking of attending one of his workshops you will be in good hands.
David has kindly offered listeners of our show an amazing discount on joining his ‘Wells Being’ Club which also includes a 6-part Level 1 'Psychic Development Course' with downloadable audio meditations!
DAVID WELLS Past lives - Who do you think you were?
Before I ask you who you are, I guess it’s only fair that I tell you who I am? Without boring you with the ‘I was born in a village north of the Border’ stuff maybe we can just assume that I had a very ordinary family upbringing in a small Scottish village, my mother worked in a knitwear factory and my father was a coal miner. I joined the Royal Navy aged 16, left when I was 24 and began a career in catering within hotels and leisure clubs and that is when it becomes interesting. In 1991 I decided to go back to college as a mature student to study leisure as a career and to fund this I was working 40 hours a week as a chef and a waiter in a small hotel in the south of England.
Not very spiritual so far, so what happened!
I was not whisked away by an order of monks, a tribe of Amazonian Indians – far from it. I got pneumonia. Whilst on a Christmas Holiday in Scotland in 1992 I found myself in hospital, unconscious with some very worried family around me. On the second night in hospital I found myself in the corridor being told to go back to bed by an old lady – I did as she asked only to find I was already there!
Thinking nothing more than I had been dreaming I forgot the incident and was released a few days later when improvements to my health were great enough. I returned to England and was convalescing when I started to experience odd happenings in my home, so odd that I found it impossible to sleep and was looking not so fresh. A friend suggested that I visited a woman who ‘knew about these things’ and I duly did. This remarkable woman was to be my teacher, mentor and friend through an extraordinary journey that was to unfold over the next ten years.
I could tell you about the odd past life experiences, the tears in class, the laughter when I realised what I really wanted, the joy at discovering my spiritual guides and how they have helped me; but that would be my path.
What sets me alight now is to know that you are embarking upon your path...You are.....aren’t you?
My website is solely to help you on your spiritual journey and to help you fulfil your; life's purpose! Ready for the ride?
yes i am ready for my journey ....but im too poor for the ride!!!!